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Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence Question Bank MCQ's

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence Question Bank


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Drug Price Control Order 1995


1. The latest Drug Price Control Order is 2013


2. MRP is Maximum Retail Price


3. Retail price is equal to (MC+CC+PM+PC)×(1+MAPE/100)+ED


4. In which year the DPCO Act exists 1995


5. MAPE is Maximum allowable post manufacturing

expense


6. For the production from basic stage Government will consider

post tax returns of on 18% on Net wort


7. Post-tax return is 14% on net worth


8. In MRP formula, M.C. means Material Cost


9. MAPE shall not exceed....... % for indigenously Mfg

scheduled formulation. 100


10. Government may fix the price within …..... period from the

date of receipt of the complete information. 2 month



11. .......... is the full form of DPEA Drugs Prices Equalization Account


12.

In August 1997, which authority did the central government

establish in order to enquire and fix the price for the bulk

drugs?

National Pharmaceutical Pricing

Authority


13. Who has the power to fix ceiling price of scheduled

formulations Central Government


14. DPCO is abbreviated for Drug Price Control Order


The Poisons Act 1919


15. The poisons act was passed in the year 1919


16. Who is authorized regulates the licenses under import of

poison Central Govt


17. Recall the penalty for the breaching of any condition of for

possession of any poison.

Imprisonment up to 6 months or with

fine of Rs 1000/- or with both


18. All oxides of mercury is deemed to be poisonous and

categorized in........ under Poison Act,1919 List B


19. Poison act was passed to regulate Import, sale, possession of poison


20. All oxides of mercury is deemed to be poisonous and

categorized in........ under Poison Act,1919 List B



The Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985


22. Heroin is also known as Diamorphine


23. Opium straw include all parts except Seed


24. Opium derivatives includes all the following except .. Charas


25. In case of schedule X drugs the prescription should be

in____________ triplicate


26. Cannabis sativa yields……... Hemp


27. A person habitual to _____ use of any narcotic drug or

psychotropic substance is know as addict Regular


28.

Punishment for Contravention in relation with poppy straw of

Narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985, tends

rigorous imprisonment not less than …………years and

extended upto………….year with fine or both.

Ten and Twenty


29. For the superintendence of the cultivation of opium poppy and

its production shall be exercised by: Narcotics commissioner


30. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Consultative

Committee has been formed by Central government



Medicinal and Toilet preparation Act, 1955


31. Medicinal and Toilet preparation act, 1955 is effectively

implemented throughout India from 5th June 1957


32.

The substances or preparations use to cleanse, improve or alter

the complexion hair skin or teeth and include deodorants and

perfumes are called as

Toilet preparations


33. Alcohol of any strength which has been rendered unfit for

human consumption is called: Denatured alcohol


34.

The premises approved for the manufacture and storage of

medicinal and toilet preparations containing alcohol, opium,

Indian hemp or other narcotic drug or narcotics on which duty

has not been paid is referred to which type of laboratory

according to medicinal and toilet preparation act:

Bonded laboratory


35.

Any medicinal and toilet preparation containing alcohol but

other than restricted preparation or a spurious preparation

referred to

Unrestricted preparation


36. Medicinal and toilet preparation Act was passed in which

year? 1956


Pharmacy Act


37. Penalty for falsely claiming to be registered pharmacist on

first conviction Fine upto 500Rs


38. Pharmacy Act was come into force on 4

th March 1948


39. The number of hours of practical training for registered

pharmacist is NLT 500 hrs


40. The records for the drug having date of expiry should be

preserved for a period at least 2 yrs



41. Regulations that prescribe minimum standard of education

required for qualification as a Pharmacist is called as Education Regulation


42. Analysis and test of samples of vaccines are carried out at Central Research Institute, Kasauli


43. No. of Nominated, Elected and Ex-officio members of PCI are 9, 8, 3


44. The Pharmacy ACT was passed in 1948


45. Which authority approves courses of study and examination

for the purpose of qualifying for registration as Pharmacist Pharmacy Council of India


46. PCI is reconstituted every 5 years


47. For the registration of pharmacists in the various states, the

Pharmacy Act Provides liar the constitution of Registrar of State Pharmacy Council


48. Joint state pharmacy council are constituted for __________-- Indefinite period


49. The secretary of PCI may also act as its ____________ Registrar


50. The education regulations are laid down by___________- PCI



51. The member of PCI will hold office for a period of-------------- 5 year


52. The first register for pharmacist registration is published by

which of the following authorities? State Government


53. How many registered pharmacists are elected in separate state

pharmacy council? 6


54. Which of the following penalties is charged when dispensing

is done by unregistered persons? 6 months imprisonment


55. The representative of U.G.C is which type of member of the

P.C.I? Nominated member


56.

The members of Medical Council of India can become a

member of Pharmacy Council of India as which of the

following members?

Elected member


57. How many registered pharmacists are elected in the joint state

pharmacy council? 3-5


58.

A member of pharmacy councils of JSPC and SPC who

absents himself from ______ consecutive meetings is deemed

to have vacated his seat.3

Drug and Cosmetic Act, 1945


59. Drug inspector shall be deemed to be public servant under

which section of IPC Section 21



60. The sample taken by the Drug Inspector from the retail

premises should be divided into 3 parts


61. License for wholesale of drugs specified in Schedule C & C1

is issued in form20

21 B


62. Cosmetic means any article intended to Alter the appearance of the human body


63. The particulars to be shown in manufacturing raw materials

and analytical record of drugs are dealt under ....... Schedule U


64. Application to manufacture cosmetics is made to the licensing

authority in Form 31


65. Barbiturates are ........ drugs. Schedule X


66. The Pharmacy Council of India under ............ of the Act is

required to maintain a register known as central Register Section 15 A


67. Manufacture outside the bond is also called as Manufacture without the bond


68. The chairman of DTAB is Director, General Health Services


69. The minimum space required for granting a wholesale license

of drug is 10-meter square



70. Import of cosmetics intended for use on the eye brow or eye

lash containing coal tar dyes is____________-

Prohibited


71. A drug which is manufactured under a name which belongs to

another drug is called as Spurious drug


72. Disease which cannot cured under the Schedule J


73. DTAB stands for Drugs Technical Advisory Board


74. Standard for Disinfectant fluid Schedule O


75. Standard for surgical dressings Schedule F2


76. List of ailments and disease that a drug should not claim to

cure is given in schedule ____________-

 J


77. Major amendment in Drug and cosmetics Act was made in

___________

1982


78. Biological and other biological products belongs to schedule--

----

 C


79. Functions of laboratory regarding with Oral polio vaccines,

Sera, Vaccine, Toxins, Antigens carried out

Laboratory of Central Research Institute,

Kasauli


80. Requirements of factory premises for Manufacturer of

Medical devices comes under Schedule M III

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